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100POINTSSS!!!!! WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!! CHECK COMMENTS
This idea "that violence may well have been subtly encouraged by an ideology that espoused political democracy ..." (Prince 17). Meaning, that the violence of the era may be a sign of expanding democracy and not a result of it. Why?
Can protests and rioting be considered democratic?
Or were these protests a result of a lack of democracy?
(This is a very heated topic in today's political and social climate. This is an academic debate, rooted in history and historical evidence. No profanity, name-calling, or evidence without support will be allowed and will result in an automatic zero. Keep it academic and polite.)
Sagot :
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