Whether you're a student or a professional, IDNLearn.com has answers for everyone. Ask your questions and receive comprehensive and trustworthy answers from our experienced community of professionals.
Sagot :
Answer:
So, the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in Stock A is 0% because the weight of Stock A is 0.
Explanation:
Solution:
Data Given:
Stock A = Expected Return 18%
Standard Deviation = 18.0%
Stock B = Expected Return 14%
Standard Deviation = 3%
Correlation Coefficient for Stock A and B = 0.50
Risk Free rate of return = 12%
For Proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in Stock A can be computed through the calculation of weight of Stock A in optimal portfolio as follows:
= [tex]\frac{(w_{a} - RFR )SDB^{2} - (w_{b} - RFR )SDA*SDB*CC }{(w_{a} - RFR )SDB^{2} + (w_{b} - RFR )SDA^{2} * (w_{a} -RFR + w_{b} -RFR )SDA*SDB*CC }[/tex]
Where,
[tex]w_{a}[/tex] = Expected Return of Stock A = 18%
[tex]w_{b}[/tex] = Expected Return of Stock B = 14%
SDA = Standard Deviation of Stock A = 18%
SDB = Standard Deviation of Stock B = 3%
CC = Correlation Coefficient = 0.50
Plugging in the values, we will get.
= [tex]\frac{(18 - 12 )3^{2} - (14 - 12 )18*3*0.50 }{(18 - 12 )3^{2} + (14 - 12 )18^{2} * (18 -12 + 14 -12 )18*3*0.50 }[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{0}{486}[/tex]
= 0
So, the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in Stock A is 0% because the weight of Stock A is 0.
We appreciate your presence here. Keep sharing knowledge and helping others find the answers they need. This community is the perfect place to learn together. IDNLearn.com provides the answers you need. Thank you for visiting, and see you next time for more valuable insights.