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The odds of one player that wins the jackpot should be 0.00156%.
Given that,
Now the odds of one player that wins the jackpot should be
[tex]= \frac{1}{40} \times \frac{1}{40} \times \frac{1}{40} \\\\[/tex]
= 0.00156%
Therefore we can conclude that the odds of one player that wins the jackpot should be 0.00156%.
Learn more about the odd here: brainly.com/question/2133449