Connect with a knowledgeable community and get your questions answered on IDNLearn.com. Ask anything and receive prompt, well-informed answers from our community of experienced experts.

Josh examines the expression 5^-1/5^1.

He claims that the expression has a value equal to 1 because it simplifies to 5^0, and any integer to the 0 power is 1.

Is Josh correct? Explain why or why not.


Sagot :

Answer:

Incorrect

Step-by-step explanation:

Law of Exponent:

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{ {a}^{m} }{ {a}^{n} } = {a}^{m - n} }[/tex]

Substitute a = 5, m = -1 and n = 1.

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{ {5}^{ - 1} }{ {5}^{1} } = {5}^{ - 1 - 1} } \\ \displaystyle \large{ \frac{ {5}^{ - 1} }{ {5}^{1} } = {5}^{ - 2} }[/tex]

Therefore, Josh is wrong because Josh misused the law of exponent. What Josh used was a^m × a^n = a^{m+n}.

We appreciate your contributions to this forum. Don't forget to check back for the latest answers. Keep asking, answering, and sharing useful information. IDNLearn.com is your source for precise answers. Thank you for visiting, and we look forward to helping you again soon.