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Some African Americans were permitted to vote following the Revolution, but those rights were later taken away. How were those rights taken away, and do you feel that this practice was fair? Why or why not?

Sagot :

The way in which state governments restricted the vote of African Americans after the American Revolution was through the imposition of discriminatory clauses such as poll taxes, by means of which it was impossible to grant people with fewer resources; literacy tests, by means of which only people with a certain level of education (who were generally only white) could vote; and the demands that the ancestors of the voter be free, which meant that the vast majority of African Americans could not meet this requirement.

These requirements were clearly unjust, discriminatory and unconstitutional, since they violated the freedoms of these people and their right to equality, which in turn are part of the very essence of the United States as a nation.

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