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Before World War I, Women didn't have full
voting rights, but they had considerable success as reformers. After the
War they could vote, but their proposals met defeat. How might we account
for this apparent contradiction?

Sagot :

Michell96idn

Despite the right to vote granted to women, after the First World War their proposals were defeated by vote because society was still dominated by men.

What is the right to vote?

The right to vote is a universal right for all citizen members of a state. Generally the vote is related to the democratic government system although in ancient times in some civilizations the popular vote was used to make some decisions.

For much of history, women did not have the right to vote or actively participate in politics and social affairs. However, towards the end of the 19th century, women in opposition to this situation rose up and managed to have this right granted to them.

At the beginning of the 20th century, women were much more autonomous and participatory, they even played a fundamental role during the First World War. However, when she wanted to participate in politics or influence decisions, she did not succeed because society was still dominated mainly by men.

Learn more about vote in: https://brainly.com/question/12288808

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