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what number do i multiply π(pi)^2 by to end up with a number with no decimal
brainly +100 points for first correct response
π^2 x ___ =

Sagot :

Answer:

1/π²

Step-by-step explanation:

On multiplying π² by its inverse value, you get the answer to be 1, which has no decimal points.

  • π² × 1/π² = 1
ItzTdsidn

Answer:

π² × 1/π² = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given equation,

→ π² × ___ = ?

Let's keep the missing term as y, and product as 1 (a number with no decimal).

→ π² × y = 1

Then the answer will be,

→ π² × y = 1

→ [ y = 1/π² ]

Verification of the value of y,

→ π² × y = 1

→ π² × (1/π²) = 1

→ [ 1 = 1 ]

→ LHS = RHS

Hence, 1/π² is the missing term that ends up with a number with no decimal.

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