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Explain why the claim that barring women from voting is the same as declaring a group of people guilty of a crime without a trial is an example of "straw man fallacy."

What does this statement imply?

Sagot :

The statement imply that without any evidence or prove there should not be a conclusion.

What does this statement imply?

There was no genuine reason for barring woman from voting and without a prove there should not be a conclusion as regarding the matter. This is the same for trial an individual should be heard before conclusion.

Therefore, The statement imply that without any evidence or prove there should not be a conclusion.

Lear more on statement below,

https://brainly.com/question/20540884

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