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Sagot :
Yes, it is possible that one-to-one function and its inverse are true. If f(f(x)) = x then function and its inverse coincide.
What are one-to-one function and inverse of function ?
If each x-value corresponds to exactly one y-value, the function is said to be one-to-one. Inverse function graphs are reflections of the y = x line. This indicates that there can be only one y-value for each x-value. One-to-one functions are those that fit this description.
Inverse of function is represented by [tex]f^{-1} (x)[/tex].
Test to check inverse function: If and only if no horizontal line intersects the graph of f at more than one location, then the function f is one-to-one and possesses an inverse function.
Example: f(x) = 5-x
f(f(x))= 5- (5-x) = x
So above function is one to one and inverse of itself.
Learn more about one-one to function here:
https://brainly.com/question/13146967
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