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Prove that [tex]\( K \cdot E = \frac{1}{2} mv^2 \)[/tex] (constant force)

Sagot :

Certainly! Let's prove that [tex]\( K \cdot E = \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \)[/tex] under the context given by the problem. Assume we are dealing with kinetic energy and some constants related to it.

1. Understanding the Equation:

- [tex]\( K \)[/tex] is a constant that we need to identify.
- [tex]\( E \)[/tex] is an expression involving mass ([tex]\( m \)[/tex]) and velocity ([tex]\( v \)[/tex]).
- The goal is to show that the product [tex]\( K \cdot E \)[/tex] equals the kinetic energy, represented by [tex]\( \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \)[/tex].

2. Expressing Kinetic Energy ([tex]\( KE \)[/tex]):

The kinetic energy [tex]\( KE \)[/tex] is given by
[tex]\[ KE = \frac{1}{2} m v^2, \][/tex]
where [tex]\( m \)[/tex] is the mass and [tex]\( v \)[/tex] is the velocity.

3. Identifying [tex]\( K \)[/tex] and [tex]\( E \)[/tex]:

By inspection, we notice that the factor [tex]\(\frac{1}{2}\)[/tex] is part of the kinetic energy formula. Let’s assign this as:
[tex]\[ K = \frac{1}{2}. \][/tex]

4. Determining [tex]\( E \)[/tex]:

Since we defined [tex]\( K \)[/tex] as [tex]\( \frac{1}{2} \)[/tex], we need to express [tex]\( E \)[/tex] such that their product yields the kinetic energy. Given that [tex]\( \frac{1}{2} \)[/tex] should multiply with [tex]\( E \)[/tex] to result in [tex]\( \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \)[/tex], we can infer that:
[tex]\[ E = m v^2. \][/tex]

5. Calculating the Product [tex]\( K \cdot E \)[/tex]:

Now, let’s multiply [tex]\( K \)[/tex] and [tex]\( E \)[/tex]:
[tex]\[ K \cdot E = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right) \cdot (m v^2). \][/tex]

6. Simplifying the Expression:

Performing the multiplication, we get:
[tex]\[ K \cdot E = \frac{1}{2} m v^2. \][/tex]

Thus, we have shown that [tex]\( K \cdot E = \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \)[/tex], which confirms the equality we intended to prove. Therefore, under the given conditions and definitions, the product [tex]\( K \cdot E \)[/tex] indeed equals the kinetic energy expression [tex]\( \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \)[/tex].
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