Answered

IDNLearn.com connects you with a community of knowledgeable individuals ready to help. Our community is here to provide the comprehensive and accurate answers you need to make informed decisions.

2. How does Johnson distinguish between the voting rights of colonists and Europeans?

F. He regards colonists as having the same voting rights as Europeans.
G. He argues that colonists chose to leave, giving up voting rights.
H. He states that the British government has no right to tax the colonies.
J. He does not make a distinction.

Sagot :

GinnyAnsweridn

Final answer:

The voting rights of colonists and Europeans differed in terms of representation in Parliament and taxation, leading to significant tensions and the American Revolutionary War.


Explanation:

History: Voting Rights of Colonists vs. Europeans

In the context of the American colonies, the distinction between colonists' and Europeans' voting rights was primarily centered on representation in Parliament and taxation. Colonists argued that they should have direct representation in Parliament to have a say in the laws and taxes imposed upon them, whereas British subjects in England believed in the concept of virtual representation, where elected officials made decisions on their behalf. This difference in perspective led to significant tensions and ultimately played a role in the American Revolutionary War.


Learn more about American Revolution here:

https://brainly.com/question/41429425


Your participation means a lot to us. Keep sharing information and solutions. This community grows thanks to the amazing contributions from members like you. IDNLearn.com provides the answers you need. Thank you for visiting, and see you next time for more valuable insights.