Certainly! Let's solve the given formula [tex]\( F = ma \)[/tex] for the acceleration [tex]\( a \)[/tex].
1. Start with the given formula:
[tex]\[
F = ma
\][/tex]
where [tex]\( F \)[/tex] is the force, [tex]\( m \)[/tex] is the mass, and [tex]\( a \)[/tex] is the acceleration.
2. To solve for [tex]\( a \)[/tex], we need to isolate [tex]\( a \)[/tex] on one side of the equation. We can do this by dividing both sides of the equation by [tex]\( m \)[/tex]:
[tex]\[
\frac{F}{m} = \frac{ma}{m}
\][/tex]
3. The [tex]\( m \)[/tex] on the right side cancels out:
[tex]\[
\frac{F}{m} = a
\][/tex]
4. Thus, the equation for [tex]\( a \)[/tex] is:
[tex]\[
a = \frac{F}{m}
\][/tex]
So, the correct formula for acceleration [tex]\( a \)[/tex] is [tex]\( \frac{F}{m} \)[/tex]. Hence, the correct option from the given choices is:
[tex]\[ a = \frac{F}{m} \][/tex]
