IDNLearn.com: Your one-stop destination for reliable answers to diverse questions. Our community provides accurate and timely answers to help you understand and solve any issue.

A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 41 weeks gestation presents for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is complicated by tobacco abuse and intermittent prenatal care. Her last visit was at 35 weeks. Prenatal labs are unremarkable except cervical DNA probe positive for Chlamydia, which was treated, and a Pap smear with low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Ultrasound at 21 weeks was consistent with gestational age based on her certain regular LMP. Her vitals reveal a blood pressure of 128/76; pulse 74; and temperature 98° F (36.7° C). Fundal height is 39 cm with estimated fetal weight of 2700 gm. Cervix is dilated to 1 cm, 50% effaced, -2 station. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?


A. Return visit in one week
B. Non-stress test and assessment of amniotic fluid volume
C. Ultrasound to assess fetal growth
D. Oxytocin challenge test
E. Cesarean section


Sagot :

Answer:

B. Non-stress test and assessment of amniotic fluid volume

B non stress test and assessment of amniotic fluid volume
Your participation is crucial to us. Keep sharing your knowledge and experiences. Let's create a learning environment that is both enjoyable and beneficial. Your questions are important to us at IDNLearn.com. Thanks for stopping by, and come back for more reliable solutions.